Thank you very much for responding, Thomas.

===== Original Message From "Thomas A.Schmitz" ===== I am not sure I have understood everything you write, but here's a very brief outline of what I think you need to do. There are two cases you need to consider:

I am in case 1: pfb-normal + pfb-expert

1. You have more than one font (this seems to be your case), normally these will be postscript type1 fonts (extensions .pfb or .pfa). If you want to mix characters from two fonts (say, normal letters from font A, oldstyle numerals and maybe small caps from font B), you can most easily do this via a virtual font. It's not too hard; I wrote a small how-to which you can find on CTAN (http://www.ctan.org/tex-archive/info/virtualfontshowto/?action=/tex- archive/info/)

<snip>

So there is no simple answer to your question. TeX knows to pick up zerooldstyle instead of zero either 1. because you have a virtual font that says MAPFONT 1, so it knows it will have to use a different pfb than for the rest, or 2. because the encoding file points to character zerooldstyle within the ttf.

Ok, but Hans explicitly claimed to have done this for Latin Modern without virtual fonts, only encoding trickery (I'll c if I can find that message). Actually, I was really surprised when Hans said he could do this without virtual fonts, and have always been eager to learn the trick;-> With Alan Hoenig's help almost 2 years ago I contructed a complete virtual font for old style cmr using virtual fonts; I guess I can do that again (though with a non-TeX font I'm scared;-> I'll read your how-to). On the other hand, how will TeXFont handle virtual fonts? What does TeXfont need to do this correctly? Or do we just forget about TeXFont? Thanks again! Best Idris ============================ Professor Idris Samawi Hamid Department of Philosophy Colorado State University Fort Collins, CO 80523