14 Feb
2007
14 Feb
'07
11:03 a.m.
On Feb 14, 2007, at 11:57 AM, Janko Hauser wrote:
As I do not understand fonts at all, but is it really so, that one needs to have the bold fontpackage if one wants to set a word in bold in tex? Asked another way, can tex not do the same as word in this regard?
with regards,
__Janko
TeX can produce an artificial bold version of type 1 fonts via postscript commands in the map file, and you can consult the index of the TeXbook for "poor man's bold" for another solution. In both cases, the typographic quality is so low that you really don't want to go there. Word output is ugly anyway, so nobody cares if it produces artificial bold that makes it even uglier... Thomas